“pressing something … [upon a person so as to] fatigue the brain thus causing that person to do anything.”
Using this definition, the question arises whether mental abuse in a marital relationship could be considered coercion if it evokes general feelings of fear? (i.e. will a long-standing relationship where one party is consistently coerced be enough to invoke the shredding machine of the courts?).
For example, a husband and wife are married for 15 years. One spouse mentally abuses the other in various ways during this time. If, under these circumstances, the victim bequeathed all, or even part, of their belongings to the abusive spouse, could this be considered undue influence?
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